NREMT Paramedic Level Quiz: Cardiac And Respiratory Medical Emergencies

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Cardiac And Respiratory Medical Emergencies, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for NREMT Paramedic Level.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. A 500 mL bolus of normal saline to increase coronary perfusion pressure.
2. Metoprolol 5 mg IV to decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
3. Lidocaine 100 mg IV push as a prophylactic antiarrhythmic.
4. Fentanyl 50 mcg IV for analgesia and its anxiolytic effects. (correct answer)

Explanation: When managing persistent chest pain in STEMI patients who have already received standard therapy, you need to focus on safe, effective pain relief that won't compromise hemodynamics or worsen the cardiac condition. Option D (Fentanyl 50 mcg IV) is correct because opioid analgesia is the standard of care for persistent ischemic chest pain after nitrates have failed. Fentanyl effectively reduces pain and anxiety without significantly affecting blood pressure or heart rate. Pain relief is crucial in STEMI because continued pain indicates ongoing ischemia and increases sympathetic stimulation, which raises myocardial oxygen demand. Option A is wrong because fluid boluses can worsen heart failure and pulmonary edema in STEMI patients. The patient's BP of 110/70 is adequate for coronary perfusion, and volume loading could be dangerous. Option B is incorrect because while beta-blockers reduce oxygen demand, they're contraindicated in acute STEMI with ongoing chest pain until the patient is stabilized. The relatively normal heart rate (90 bpm) and borderline BP make metoprolol risky at this stage. Option C is wrong because prophylactic lidocaine is no longer recommended in STEMI management. Current guidelines show it doesn't improve outcomes and may increase mortality risk. NREMT strategy: In cardiac emergency questions, prioritize immediate symptom relief and hemodynamic stability. When standard treatments (aspirin, nitrates) fail for chest pain, opioid analgesia is your next step. Avoid interventions that could destabilize blood pressure or heart function in acute cardiac patients.

Question 2

1. Instruct the patient to bear down as if having a bowel movement. (correct answer)
2. Administer adenosine 6 mg via rapid IV push.
3. Prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion at 100 joules.
4. Administer amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes.

Explanation: This patient has a stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). According to ACLS guidelines, the first-line treatment for stable SVT is attempting vagal maneuvers. Instructing the patient to bear down (the Valsalva maneuver) is a common and effective vagal maneuver. If this fails, then pharmacological intervention with adenosine would be the next step. Cardioversion is reserved for unstable patients.

Question 3

1. Administering 324 mg of aspirin to prevent platelet aggregation.
2. Providing high-flow oxygen and initiating rapid transport. (correct answer)
3. Administering IV morphine for analgesia and anxiolysis.
4. Performing a needle decompression on the affected side.

Explanation: This patient's presentation (sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic pain, recent travel, tachycardia, low ETCO2) is highly suggestive of a massive pulmonary embolism (PE). The low ETCO2 reflects a ventilation/perfusion mismatch. Prehospital management is primarily supportive. The most crucial interventions are supplemental oxygen to correct hypoxia and rapid transport to a facility capable of definitive care (thrombolytics or thrombectomy).

Question 4

1. The patient's lethargy and altered mental status.
2. The high end-tidal carbon dioxide reading of 72 mmHg.
3. The absence of wheezing on lung auscultation. (correct answer)
4. The presence of significant accessory muscle use.

Explanation: In a severe asthma attack, the absence of wheezing (a "silent chest") combined with diminished air movement indicates that the patient is no longer moving enough air to generate sound. This is a pre-terminal sign of complete airway obstruction and impending respiratory arrest. While the other findings are serious, the silent chest is the most immediately life-threatening sign.

Question 5

1. Rapidly lower the blood pressure to a normal range, below 140/90 mmHg.
2. Administer a fluid bolus to improve cerebral and renal perfusion.
3. Gradually reduce the mean arterial pressure by no more than 25% initially. (correct answer)
4. Administer a benzodiazepine to treat her anxiety and lower her heart rate.

Explanation: This patient is in a hypertensive emergency with signs of end-organ damage (encephalopathy, pulmonary edema). The goal is not to normalize the blood pressure rapidly, as this can cause hypoperfusion and ischemic injury to vital organs. The accepted guideline is to lower the Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) by 10-20% in the first hour, or a maximum of 25%, using a titratable IV agent like nicardipine or labetalol.

Question 6

1. High-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask and a 500 mL fluid bolus.
2. Aggressive IV nitroglycerin infusion and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). (correct answer)
3. Intramuscular epinephrine and a rapid 250 mg bolus of methylprednisolone.
4. BVM ventilations with 100% oxygen and administration of 4 mg of morphine sulfate.

Explanation: This patient is in florid cardiogenic pulmonary edema, likely secondary to a hypertensive emergency (Sympathetic Crashing Acute Pulmonary Edema - SCAPE). The most effective treatment is to aggressively reduce both preload and afterload. CPAP provides immediate respiratory support and helps drive fluid out of the alveoli, while a high-dose IV nitroglycerin infusion will cause vasodilation, reducing the workload on the failing left ventricle.

Question 7

1. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation causing poor gas exchange.
2. Fluid accumulation in the alveoli leading to cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
3. Neuromuscular fatigue of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. (correct answer)
4. Acute obstruction of the upper airway due to laryngeal spasm.

Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness. A myasthenic crisis is a life-threatening exacerbation where the weakness affects the muscles of respiration, including the diaphragm and intercostals. This leads to hypoventilation and respiratory failure. The primary problem is neuromuscular fatigue, not bronchoconstriction, pulmonary edema, or upper airway obstruction.

Question 8

1. Administer a 500 mL normal saline bolus and reassess.
2. Initiate a norepinephrine infusion titrated to a MAP of 65 mmHg. (correct answer)
3. Administer a 1 mg bolus of epinephrine 1:10,000 IV.
4. Begin transcutaneous pacing at a rate of 70/min.

Explanation: The patient is in post-arrest cardiogenic shock, confirmed by the extensive anterior STEMI. The hypotension is due to pump failure, not volume loss. While a small fluid challenge might be considered, a vasopressor is necessary. Norepinephrine is the first-line agent for cardiogenic shock as it increases systemic vascular resistance and has some inotropic effects, improving perfusion without significantly increasing heart rate. A large epinephrine bolus would cause excessive tachycardia and increase myocardial oxygen demand. Pacing is not indicated for hypotension with an adequate heart rate.

Question 9

1. Acute pericarditis. (correct answer)
2. Spontaneous pneumothorax.
3. Costochondritis.
4. Acute coronary syndrome.

Explanation: The key finding is the pericardial friction rub, described as a triphasic, grating, or scratching sound. This sound, combined with pleuritic chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward, is pathognomonic for acute pericarditis. Autoimmune diseases like lupus are a known cause of pericarditis. The other options do not typically present with a friction rub.

Question 10

1. Administer another 0.5 mg dose of epinephrine IM.
2. Prepare for immediate rapid sequence intubation.
3. Administer 50 mg of diphenhydramine via slow IV push.
4. Initiate a continuous nebulizer with albuterol. (correct answer)

Explanation: When treating anaphylaxis, you must address multiple systems simultaneously - cardiovascular collapse, respiratory compromise, and inflammatory responses. After epinephrine administration, persistent bronchospasm requires targeted respiratory intervention as your immediate priority. Answer D is correct because albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that directly targets bronchial smooth muscle constriction. While epinephrine has beta-2 effects, its primary role in anaphylaxis is cardiovascular support through alpha-1 and beta-1 stimulation. Continuous albuterol nebulization provides sustained bronchodilation specifically for the respiratory component of this patient's deteriorating condition. Answer A is problematic because repeating epinephrine IM won't provide the targeted bronchodilation needed for persistent wheezing. While epinephrine can be repeated every 5-15 minutes, it's not the most effective second-line treatment for isolated bronchospasm after the initial dose. Answer B represents premature escalation. Although RSI might eventually become necessary, attempting bronchodilation first is appropriate since the patient is still conscious and breathing spontaneously, despite increased work of breathing. Answer C addresses the histamine-mediated components (urticaria, angioedema) but won't provide immediate relief for bronchospasm. Diphenhydramine is important in anaphylaxis management but works too slowly for acute respiratory distress. Study tip: In anaphylaxis questions, remember the treatment hierarchy: epinephrine first for systemic effects, then target specific persistent symptoms with appropriate medications. Bronchospasm after epinephrine calls for beta-2 agonists, not more epinephrine or immediate intubation.

Question 11

1. Immediately extubate the patient and manage the airway with a BVM and mask.
2. Disconnect the patient from the ventilator and begin ventilating with a BVM via the tracheostomy. (correct answer)
3. Attempt to pass a suction catheter through the tracheostomy tube to clear a potential obstruction.
4. Administer a sedative to calm the patient and allow the ventilator to function properly.

Explanation: When a ventilator-dependent patient is in acute distress, the immediate priority is to ensure oxygenation and ventilation. The DOPE mnemonic (Displacement, Obstruction, Pneumothorax, Equipment) is useful. The first step is to rule out equipment failure by disconnecting the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilating with a bag-valve device attached directly to the tracheostomy tube. This confirms if the problem is with the patient or the machine.

Question 12

1. Left-sided heart failure.
2. Right-sided heart failure.
3. Biventricular heart failure. (correct answer)
4. High-output heart failure.

Explanation: This patient is exhibiting signs of both right-sided and left-sided heart failure. The jugular venous distention and peripheral edema are classic signs of right-sided failure (systemic fluid backup). The dyspnea and crackles at the lung bases are classic signs of left-sided failure (pulmonary fluid backup). When both are present, it is termed biventricular failure. The most common cause of right-sided failure is pre-existing left-sided failure.

Question 13

1. Perform an immediate needle decompression in the 2nd intercostal space.
2. Administer morphine for pain control prior to any other intervention.
3. Apply a CPAP mask at 10 cmH2O to assist with ventilations.
4. Provide supportive care with oxygen and transport for further evaluation. (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter a young, tall, thin male with sudden-onset unilateral chest pain and diminished breath sounds, immediately think spontaneous pneumothorax. This demographic has the highest risk for primary spontaneous pneumothorax, and the clinical presentation is classic. The key decision point here is recognizing that this patient is hemodynamically stable. His vital signs show no signs of tension pneumothorax or respiratory failure: blood pressure is normal, heart rate is only mildly elevated, and oxygen saturation remains adequate at 96%. This stability completely changes your treatment approach. Option D is correct because stable spontaneous pneumothorax requires supportive care, supplemental oxygen (which helps nitrogen reabsorption), and transport for chest X-ray confirmation and possible chest tube placement at the hospital. Option A is wrong because needle decompression is reserved for tension pneumothorax with hemodynamic compromise. Performing this procedure on a stable patient risks creating iatrogenic injury and converting a simple pneumothorax into a more serious condition. Option B is wrong because pain management is secondary to addressing the underlying respiratory issue, and opioids can depress respiratory drive in a patient who may already have compromised lung function. Option C is wrong because CPAP increases intrathoracic pressure, which could worsen a pneumothorax by further compressing the affected lung or potentially creating tension. Remember this pattern: Distinguish between stable and unstable pneumothorax based on vital signs and clinical presentation. Aggressive interventions like needle decompression are only indicated when you see signs of tension pneumothorax with hemodynamic compromise.

Question 14

1. Administer 2.5 mg of albuterol via nebulizer to address bronchospasm.
2. Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) at 5 cmH2O. (correct answer)
3. Establish IV access and administer a 500 mL normal saline bolus for dehydration.
4. Administer 0.4 mg sublingual nitroglycerin to reduce cardiac preload.

Explanation: The patient's presentation suggests acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) with a component of bronchospasm (cardiac asthma), superimposed on his underlying COPD. The most critical initial intervention is to improve oxygenation and decrease the work of breathing. CPAP addresses both issues by recruiting alveoli, pushing fluid out of the interstitial space, and providing ventilatory support. While other interventions may be necessary, CPAP provides the most immediate benefit for his respiratory distress.

Question 15

1. Administer 324 mg of aspirin and 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin for suspected ACS.
2. Establish two large-bore IVs and administer a rapid fluid bolus to treat for shock.
3. Administer small, titrated doses of morphine for pain and gently lower blood pressure. (correct answer)
4. Immediately apply a CPAP mask to reduce myocardial workload and improve oxygenation.

Explanation: The tearing pain radiating to the back and the significant blood pressure discrepancy between arms are classic signs of an aortic dissection. Prehospital management focuses on pain control and careful blood pressure reduction to minimize shearing forces on the aorta. Small, titrated doses of an opioid like morphine are appropriate. Aspirin and aggressive fluid boluses are contraindicated. The goal is to keep the patient calm and avoid hypertension while rapidly transporting to a surgical center.

Question 16

1. Initiating a 250 mL normal saline fluid bolus.
2. Applying transcutaneous pacer pads for potential pacing.
3. Administering 0.4 mg of sublingual nitroglycerin. (correct answer)
4. Requesting an emergent cardiology consult at the receiving facility.

Explanation: The patient is experiencing an inferior wall STEMI, which often involves the right ventricle. Patients with right ventricular MI are highly dependent on preload to maintain cardiac output. Nitroglycerin is a potent venodilator that reduces preload and would likely cause profound hypotension in this patient. Fluid administration is indicated to increase preload, and pacer pads are appropriate given the bradycardia. STEMI notification is critical.

Question 17

1. Metoprolol, to decrease myocardial oxygen demand by reducing heart rate.
2. Nitroglycerin, to alleviate chest pain and reduce blood pressure.
3. Diazepam, to manage agitation and reduce central sympathetic outflow. (correct answer)
4. Adenosine, to be administered for a potential underlying supraventricular tachycardia.

Explanation: Cocaine-induced chest pain is caused by intense vasoconstriction and sympathetic stimulation. Benzodiazepines (like diazepam) are the primary treatment. They reduce agitation, decrease heart rate and blood pressure by calming the central nervous system's sympathetic surge, and are considered first-line therapy. Nitroglycerin can be used, but benzodiazepines address the root cause of the sympathetic overdrive. Beta-blockers (metoprolol) are contraindicated due to the risk of unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation, which can worsen vasoconstriction.

Question 18

1. Respiratory acidosis due to pulmonary edema.
2. Metabolic alkalosis due to electrolyte loss.
3. Respiratory alkalosis due to anxiety.
4. Metabolic acidosis due to renal failure. (correct answer)

Explanation: Patients with end-stage renal disease cannot excrete hydrogen ions or metabolic acids, leading to severe metabolic acidosis. The tall, peaked T-waves are a classic ECG sign of hyperkalemia, which also occurs in renal failure. The body attempts to compensate for metabolic acidosis by increasing the rate and depth of breathing (Kussmaul respirations) to blow off carbon dioxide (an acid), thereby raising the body's pH.

Question 19

1. Administration of nebulized albuterol to improve oxygen saturation.
2. Initiation of an IV with a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus. (correct answer)
3. Application of CPAP to address her respiratory distress and hypoxia.
4. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG to rule out a cardiac etiology.

Explanation: This patient presents with classic signs of septic shock secondary to pneumonia. Her hypotension (BP 84/50) and tachycardia (HR 128) indicate distributive shock. The most critical prehospital intervention is to restore perfusion with aggressive fluid resuscitation. A 20-30 mL/kg crystalloid bolus is indicated to address the vasodilation and capillary leak associated with sepsis. While oxygen is important, correcting the profound hypotension is the highest priority.

Question 20

1. The presence of soot around the mouth and nose. (correct answer)
2. The patient's wheezing on auscultation.
3. The patient's tachycardic heart rate.
4. The normal blood pressure.

Explanation: In a fire victim, soot around the mouth and nose strongly suggests significant smoke inhalation. This patient is at high risk for both carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning and cyanide toxicity. A standard pulse oximeter cannot differentiate between oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin, so it will give a falsely high SpO2 reading in the presence of CO poisoning. Therefore, the soot is the most critical clue that the SpO2 reading is unreliable and a life-threatening toxidrome may be present.