USMLE Step 2 Quiz: Initial Trauma Assessment And Management

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Initial Trauma Assessment And Management, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for USMLE Step 2.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. Massive hemothorax
2. Aortic dissection
3. Cardiac tamponade (correct answer)
4. Tension pneumothorax

Explanation: The patient's presentation with Beck's triad (hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds) in the setting of penetrating chest trauma is highly suggestive of cardiac tamponade. The FAST exam confirms a pericardial effusion. This constitutes obstructive shock, where fluid in the pericardial sac restricts diastolic filling of the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output. This is a life-threatening injury that must be identified and managed during the primary survey.

Question 2

1. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
2. Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam
3. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast (correct answer)
4. Admission for serial abdominal examinations

Explanation: For a hemodynamically stable patient with suspected blunt abdominal trauma, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast is the diagnostic modality of choice. It provides detailed anatomical information, can identify solid organ injury (e.g., splenic or liver laceration), retroperitoneal hematoma, and active extravasation of contrast, which would not be well visualized on a FAST exam. The FAST exam is primarily used for hemodynamically unstable patients to rapidly identify hemoperitoneum. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is invasive and has been largely supplanted by FAST and CT.

Question 3

1. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast
2. FAST exam at the bedside (correct answer)
3. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
4. Proceed directly to exploratory laparotomy

Explanation: In a hemodynamically unstable patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the immediate goal is to determine if the source of shock is intra-abdominal hemorrhage. The FAST exam is the ideal test in this scenario because it is rapid, non-invasive, and can be performed at the bedside without delaying resuscitation. A positive FAST exam (showing free fluid) in this unstable patient would be an indication for immediate exploratory laparotomy. A CT scan is contraindicated as it requires transporting an unstable patient away from the resuscitation area. While proceeding directly to laparotomy is the ultimate destination if the FAST is positive, the FAST exam is the diagnostic step to confirm the need for surgery.

Question 4

1. FAST exam to look for free fluid
2. CT scan of the abdomen to trace the bullet path
3. Immediate exploratory laparotomy (correct answer)
4. Infusion of 2 liters of crystalloid and reassessment

Explanation: Penetrating abdominal trauma with hemodynamic instability or signs of peritonitis (e.g., rigidity, diffuse tenderness) is a clear indication for immediate exploratory laparotomy. Further diagnostic imaging like a CT scan or FAST exam is unnecessary and would delay life-saving surgical intervention to control hemorrhage and intra-abdominal contamination. While fluid resuscitation should be initiated, the definitive management is surgical.

Question 5

1. Close the wound with sutures
2. Insert a chest tube directly into the wound
3. Apply an occlusive dressing taped on three sides (correct answer)
4. Perform endotracheal intubation

Explanation: This patient has an open pneumothorax, also known as a "sucking chest wound." The defect in the chest wall allows air to enter the pleural space during inspiration, collapsing the lung and impairing ventilation. The immediate treatment is to cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and tape it on only three sides. This creates a one-way valve that allows air to exit the pleural space during expiration but prevents it from entering during inspiration. Suturing the wound shut could convert it into a life-threatening tension pneumothorax. A chest tube should be placed, but at a separate site, not through the traumatic wound.

Question 6

1. Hypoventilation from pain
2. Mechanical inefficiency from paradoxical chest movement
3. Associated massive hemothorax
4. Underlying pulmonary contusion (correct answer)

Explanation: The patient has a flail chest, defined by fractures of three or more consecutive ribs in two or more places. While pain and the paradoxical chest wall motion contribute to respiratory failure, the most significant cause of hypoxemia in patients with flail chest is the underlying pulmonary contusion. The bruised lung parenchyma becomes edematous and filled with blood, leading to significant ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch and shunting, which impairs gas exchange.

Question 7

1. Obtain a CT scan of the cervical spine
2. Obtain a 3-view plain film series of the cervical spine
3. Clear the cervical spine clinically and remove the collar (correct answer)
4. Obtain flexion-extension views of the cervical spine

Explanation: This patient meets all five of the NEXUS (National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study) low-risk criteria for ruling out a clinically significant cervical spine injury. The criteria are: no posterior midline cervical spine tenderness, no evidence of intoxication, a normal level of alertness, no focal neurologic deficit, and no painful distracting injuries. Since she meets these criteria, her cervical spine can be safely cleared based on the clinical examination, and imaging is not required. The cervical collar can be removed.

Question 8

1. Systolic blood pressure of 80-90 mmHg (correct answer)
2. Systolic blood pressure > 120 mmHg
3. Mean arterial pressure > 80 mmHg
4. Normalization of heart rate to < 100/min

Explanation: In patients with penetrating torso trauma and ongoing hemorrhage, the strategy of permissive hypotension (or hypotensive resuscitation) is recommended until definitive surgical control of bleeding is achieved. The goal is to maintain a systolic blood pressure (SBP) of 80-90 mmHg. This pressure is sufficient to maintain perfusion to vital organs (brain, heart) but low enough to avoid dislodging newly formed clots and exacerbating hemorrhage. Aggressively restoring normal blood pressure before the bleeding is stopped can lead to worse outcomes. This strategy does not apply to patients with traumatic brain injury.

Question 9

1. Observe in a monitored setting
2. Administer humidified oxygen and bronchodilators
3. Perform early endotracheal intubation (correct answer)
4. Obtain a chest X-ray and arterial blood gas analysis

Explanation: This patient has multiple signs of significant inhalational injury (soot, singed hairs, hoarseness). Hoarseness is a particularly concerning sign of laryngeal edema. Although he is currently stable, airway edema can progress rapidly and unpredictably, leading to complete airway obstruction. The standard of care is to secure the airway with early, elective endotracheal intubation before the edema makes it difficult or impossible. Waiting for the development of respiratory distress is dangerous and can lead to a crisis situation.

Question 10

1. Administer a dose of a paralyzing agent
2. Check a core body temperature
3. Cover the patient with warm blankets (correct answer)
4. Increase the IV fluid rate with room-temperature saline

Explanation: The "E" in the primary survey (ABCDE) stands for Exposure and Environment, which includes preventing hypothermia. Trauma patients are at high risk for heat loss. Shivering is a physiological response to cold and a sign of developing hypothermia. Hypothermia is a component of the "lethal triad" of trauma (acidosis, hypothermia, coagulopathy) and must be prevented. The most important immediate action is to apply active rewarming measures, such as covering the patient with warm blankets. Using warmed IV fluids and increasing the room temperature are also important. Checking a temperature is necessary, but the intervention should not be delayed. Administering paralyzing agents would stop the shivering but worsen the hypothermia.

Question 11

1. Abdominal plain film X-ray
2. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast (correct answer)
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen
4. Repeat FAST exam

Explanation: This patient is stable but has evidence of ongoing hemorrhage (falling hematocrit) and is at high risk due to her age and anticoagulation use. Her symptoms of flank/back pain and the negative FAST exam suggest a retroperitoneal source of bleeding, which is not well-visualized by ultrasound. The most appropriate imaging study for a hemodynamically stable patient with suspected retroperitoneal hemorrhage is a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast. This will accurately identify a retroperitoneal hematoma and can show active contrast extravasation.

Question 12

1. Hypercalcemia
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Hypothermia (correct answer)
4. Hyperkalemia

Explanation: Trauma patients are at high risk for hypothermia due to environmental exposure, shock, and resuscitation with room-temperature or refrigerated fluids and blood products. Hypothermia is a critical component of the 'lethal triad' of trauma (acidosis, hypothermia, coagulopathy). It impairs platelet function and the enzymatic activity of the coagulation cascade, worsening hemorrhage. Active measures such as using fluid warmers and warm blankets are essential to prevent this complication during resuscitation. Hypocalcemia (due to citrate in blood products), metabolic acidosis (from shock and saline), and hyperkalemia (from stored PRBCs) can occur, but hypothermia is a universal and major risk.

Question 13

1. Placement of a pelvic binder (correct answer)
2. Urgent transfer for angiography with embolization
3. Obtain a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
4. Surgical fixation of the pelvis

Explanation: This patient has hemorrhagic shock likely due to a pelvic fracture. An unstable pelvis can lead to massive hemorrhage from the presacral venous plexus and bony fragments. The most important initial step to control this hemorrhage is to stabilize the pelvis by applying a pelvic binder or sheet. This reduces the volume of the pelvic cavity, tamponades the venous bleeding, and stabilizes the fracture. While angiography may be needed later for arterial bleeding and surgical fixation is the definitive treatment, the pelvic binder is a critical, immediate life-saving maneuver in the primary survey.

Question 14

1. Admission for continuous cardiac monitoring
2. Measurement of serial cardiac troponins
3. Transthoracic echocardiogram (correct answer)
4. CT angiography of the chest

Explanation: The presence of a new conduction abnormality (right bundle branch block) on an ECG after significant blunt chest trauma is highly concerning for blunt cardiac injury. The most appropriate next diagnostic step is a transthoracic echocardiogram. An echocardiogram can directly visualize cardiac structures and assess for wall motion abnormalities (indicative of myocardial contusion), valvular injury, septal rupture, or pericardial effusion. While the patient should be admitted for monitoring and troponins may be checked, the echocardiogram is the key diagnostic study to define the extent of the injury.

Question 15

1. 1 liter of 0.9% saline followed by another liter
2. 1 liter of Lactated Ringer's solution
3. Packed red blood cells, plasma, and platelets in a 1:1:1 ratio (correct answer)
4. 5% albumin solution

Explanation: This patient is in Class IV hemorrhagic shock. Modern trauma resuscitation protocols emphasize early, balanced resuscitation with blood products over large-volume crystalloid infusion. A massive transfusion protocol, using packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets in a 1:1:1 ratio, more closely mimics whole blood and helps prevent the dilutional coagulopathy, acidosis, and hypothermia associated with aggressive crystalloid resuscitation. Therefore, initiating a balanced blood product transfusion is the most appropriate initial fluid management.

Question 16

1. Diffuse axonal injury
2. Uncal herniation (correct answer)
3. Central cord syndrome
4. Pontine hemorrhage

Explanation: The patient's signs of a unilaterally dilated, nonreactive pupil ('blown pupil') and contralateral hemiparesis constitute a classic presentation of uncal herniation. This occurs when increased intracranial pressure, often from an epidural or subdural hematoma, forces the uncus of the temporal lobe over the tentorium cerebelli. This compresses the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve (CN III), causing pupillary dilation, and the ipsilateral cerebral peduncle, which contains the corticospinal tracts, causing contralateral motor deficits. This is a neurosurgical emergency.

Question 17

1. Place a second chest tube
2. Perform an emergent thoracotomy (correct answer)
3. Obtain a CT angiogram of the chest
4. Begin autotransfusion of the collected blood

Explanation: This patient has a massive hemothorax, which is an indication for emergent thoracotomy. The definitions for massive hemothorax include an initial chest tube output greater than 1,500 mL of blood, or continued bleeding at a rate of more than 200 mL/hour for 2-4 hours. Given the immediate return of 1,800 mL and persistent instability, surgical exploration is required to control the source of the hemorrhage, which is likely from a major vessel such as an intercostal artery or the pulmonary hilum. All other options would delay definitive, life-saving treatment.

Question 18

1. Application of a traction splint (correct answer)
2. Urgent fasciotomy
3. CT angiography of the lower extremity
4. Administration of tranexamic acid

Explanation: The patient's shock is most likely due to hemorrhage from a mid-shaft femur fracture, which can result in 1-1.5 liters of blood loss into the thigh. Applying a traction splint is a critical intervention. It realigns the bone fragments, reduces pain, and most importantly, decreases the potential space within the thigh compartment, which helps tamponade the bleeding from the bone ends and surrounding soft tissues. This is a key step in source control for hemorrhage. Fasciotomy is for compartment syndrome, not primarily for hemorrhage control. Tranexamic acid is an important adjunct, but mechanical control of bleeding is the priority.

Question 19

1. Obtain a stat portable chest X-ray
2. Perform endotracheal intubation
3. Perform needle decompression of the right chest (correct answer)
4. Insert a large-bore chest tube in the right fifth intercostal space

Explanation: The patient's presentation of hypotension, tachycardia, jugular venous distention, tracheal deviation, and unilateral absent breath sounds with hyperresonance is classic for a tension pneumothorax. This is a life-threatening emergency caused by air trapping in the pleural space, leading to mediastinal shift and obstructive shock. The most appropriate immediate intervention is needle decompression to convert the tension pneumothorax to a simple pneumothorax, followed by chest tube placement. Waiting for a chest X-ray would cause a fatal delay. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation before decompression can worsen the tension physiology. Chest tube insertion is the definitive treatment but is performed after immediate needle decompression.

Question 20

1. Nasotracheal intubation
2. Placement of an oropharyngeal airway
3. Orotracheal intubation with rapid sequence induction
4. Surgical cricothyroidotomy (correct answer)

Explanation: This patient has a compromised airway (gurgling) with altered mental status and severe mid-face trauma. The significant facial trauma makes both nasotracheal intubation (risk of cribriform plate fracture and intracranial placement) and orotracheal intubation (distorted anatomy, difficulty with mask ventilation) highly risky or contraindicated. Given the gurgling respirations suggesting blood or secretions in the airway and the anatomical distortion from facial trauma, a surgical cricothyroidotomy provides the most reliable definitive airway management. An oropharyngeal airway alone is inadequate for definitive airway protection in this compromised patient.