Musculoskeletal System - Anatomy
Card 0 of 168
What symptom is normally seen with the sacralization of L5 vertebra and why?
What symptom is normally seen with the sacralization of L5 vertebra and why?
The lumbar region of the vertebrae is known for its high mobility and ability to support body weight. If it receives inappropriate signals during development and fuses with the sacrum, it will result in a loss of mobility in the individual.
The lumbar region of the vertebrae is known for its high mobility and ability to support body weight. If it receives inappropriate signals during development and fuses with the sacrum, it will result in a loss of mobility in the individual.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
What carpal bone articulates with the radius and is the most commonly fractured bone in the wrist?
What carpal bone articulates with the radius and is the most commonly fractured bone in the wrist?
The scaphoid, which articulates with the distal radius, is a very common fractured bone. It is located at the base of the thumb.
The scaphoid, which articulates with the distal radius, is a very common fractured bone. It is located at the base of the thumb.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
A Monteggia fracture is an injury to bone?
A Monteggia fracture is an injury to bone?
A Monteggia fracture is a fracture-dislocation injury that involves a fracture of the proximal ulna, and dislocation of the proximal radius.
A Monteggia fracture is a fracture-dislocation injury that involves a fracture of the proximal ulna, and dislocation of the proximal radius.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which of the following describes a grade V Salter-Harris fracture?
Which of the following describes a grade V Salter-Harris fracture?
A Salter-Harris type V fracture is a compress ion injury of the epiphyseal plate. The other choices listed are type I is a transverse fracture through the epiphyseal plate. Type IV is a fracture extending from the epiphysis, through the epiphyseal plate, and into the metaphysis. Type III is a fracture through the epiphyseal plate and epiphysis. Type II is a fracture through the epiphyseal plate, with small fracture through metaphysis ("chip fracture").
A Salter-Harris type V fracture is a compress ion injury of the epiphyseal plate. The other choices listed are type I is a transverse fracture through the epiphyseal plate. Type IV is a fracture extending from the epiphysis, through the epiphyseal plate, and into the metaphysis. Type III is a fracture through the epiphyseal plate and epiphysis. Type II is a fracture through the epiphyseal plate, with small fracture through metaphysis ("chip fracture").
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease involves avascular necrosis of which bone?
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease involves avascular necrosis of which bone?
While the other bones listed are common sites of avascular necrosis, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease specifically refers to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
While the other bones listed are common sites of avascular necrosis, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease specifically refers to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which motion at the ankle, when take to the extreme, is likely to result in an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus?
Which motion at the ankle, when take to the extreme, is likely to result in an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus?
End range ankle eversion tenses the deltoid ligament (medial collateral ligament of the ankle). However, at the extremes of ankle eversion, the high tensile strength of the deltoid ligament can cause the medial malleolus to avulse from the tibia. During inversion, this ligament is not tense.
End range ankle eversion tenses the deltoid ligament (medial collateral ligament of the ankle). However, at the extremes of ankle eversion, the high tensile strength of the deltoid ligament can cause the medial malleolus to avulse from the tibia. During inversion, this ligament is not tense.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Osgood-Schlatter's is characterized by repeated avulsion fractures of which bone?
Osgood-Schlatter's is characterized by repeated avulsion fractures of which bone?
Although bony prominences on the other bones listed are common sites for avulsion fractures, Osgood-Schlatter's disease refers to the repeated avulsion of the tibial tuberosity, which can occur during growth spurts.
Although bony prominences on the other bones listed are common sites for avulsion fractures, Osgood-Schlatter's disease refers to the repeated avulsion of the tibial tuberosity, which can occur during growth spurts.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Following anterior dislocation of the humerus, the posterolateral posrtion of the humeral head can become injured. What is the name for this type of injury?
Following anterior dislocation of the humerus, the posterolateral posrtion of the humeral head can become injured. What is the name for this type of injury?
(Superior Lateral Anterior Posterior) SLAP and Bankart tears are injuries to the glenoid labrum. Reverse-Hill Sachs and McLaughlin lesion are synonymous, however they are injuries to the anteromedial portion of the humeral head, and are caused by posterior dislocation of the humerus.
(Superior Lateral Anterior Posterior) SLAP and Bankart tears are injuries to the glenoid labrum. Reverse-Hill Sachs and McLaughlin lesion are synonymous, however they are injuries to the anteromedial portion of the humeral head, and are caused by posterior dislocation of the humerus.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
An open-book fracture describes an injury to which body region?
An open-book fracture describes an injury to which body region?
An open book fracture is an injury to the pelvis. In this injury, the pubic symphysis is disrupted, causing the pelvis to look like an open book.
An open book fracture is an injury to the pelvis. In this injury, the pubic symphysis is disrupted, causing the pelvis to look like an open book.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which of the following diseases is not associated with damage to bones?
Which of the following diseases is not associated with damage to bones?
Paget's disease is a bone disease characterized by rapid bone degradation, and rebound bone growth however, the bone is laid bone in a disorganized manner and is prone to further degeneration. Pott's disease is characterized by destruction of thoracic vertebra, secondary to tuberculosis infection. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder caused by abnormalities in type I collagen production, that makes the patient prone to fracture. de Quervain syndrome is also known as de Quervain tenosynovitis, and is characterized by irritation to the sheath covering the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons.
Paget's disease is a bone disease characterized by rapid bone degradation, and rebound bone growth however, the bone is laid bone in a disorganized manner and is prone to further degeneration. Pott's disease is characterized by destruction of thoracic vertebra, secondary to tuberculosis infection. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder caused by abnormalities in type I collagen production, that makes the patient prone to fracture. de Quervain syndrome is also known as de Quervain tenosynovitis, and is characterized by irritation to the sheath covering the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
If you read a patient’s medical history, and saw that she had gunstock deformity, which joint would you examine for this deformity?
If you read a patient’s medical history, and saw that she had gunstock deformity, which joint would you examine for this deformity?
A gunstock deformity (cubitus varus) refers to a deformity at the elbow joint, where the distal forearm is deviated medially (compared to typical anatomical alignment). Conversely, if a patient's distal forearm is deviated excessively laterally, she is said to demonstrate cubitus valgus. Cubitus varus is most commonly caused by supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Fortunately, this deformity is largely cosmetic in nature, and causes few functional limitations.
A gunstock deformity (cubitus varus) refers to a deformity at the elbow joint, where the distal forearm is deviated medially (compared to typical anatomical alignment). Conversely, if a patient's distal forearm is deviated excessively laterally, she is said to demonstrate cubitus valgus. Cubitus varus is most commonly caused by supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Fortunately, this deformity is largely cosmetic in nature, and causes few functional limitations.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
You’re reading your patient’s medical history, and find he suffered a Monteggia fracture. Based on this information, which joint would expect to be affected?
You’re reading your patient’s medical history, and find he suffered a Monteggia fracture. Based on this information, which joint would expect to be affected?
A Monteggia fracture refers to a fracture of the shaft of the ulna, and a concurrent dislocation of the head of the radius. Accordingly, this type of fracture-dislocation injury also affects the humeroradial joint (part of the elbow complex). This type of injury is often caused by falling on an outstretched arm, which could affect the glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints as well.
A Monteggia fracture refers to a fracture of the shaft of the ulna, and a concurrent dislocation of the head of the radius. Accordingly, this type of fracture-dislocation injury also affects the humeroradial joint (part of the elbow complex). This type of injury is often caused by falling on an outstretched arm, which could affect the glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints as well.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which of these refers to an avulsion injury to the thumb?
Which of these refers to an avulsion injury to the thumb?
A gamekeeper's fracture refers to an avulsion injury at the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb, secondary to a rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb. Mallet finger refers to a rupture of one of the extensor digitorum tendons, at the distal interphalangeal joints. A boxer's fracture is a fracture of one of the metacarpals. A Pott's fracture is a type of ankle fracture involving the medial and lateral malleoli.
A gamekeeper's fracture refers to an avulsion injury at the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb, secondary to a rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb. Mallet finger refers to a rupture of one of the extensor digitorum tendons, at the distal interphalangeal joints. A boxer's fracture is a fracture of one of the metacarpals. A Pott's fracture is a type of ankle fracture involving the medial and lateral malleoli.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which of the following injuries to the humerus occurs after an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint?
Which of the following injuries to the humerus occurs after an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint?
A Hill-Sachs lesion occurs after the head of the humerus abuts that glenoid rim of the scapula, injuring the articular cartilage, when the humerus is dislocated anteriorly. If the humerus is dislocated posteriorly, it can result in a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. SLAP and Bankhart lesions are injuries of the glenoid labrum and thus, are not viable answers to this question.
A Hill-Sachs lesion occurs after the head of the humerus abuts that glenoid rim of the scapula, injuring the articular cartilage, when the humerus is dislocated anteriorly. If the humerus is dislocated posteriorly, it can result in a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. SLAP and Bankhart lesions are injuries of the glenoid labrum and thus, are not viable answers to this question.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which of the following is a bony outgrowth associated with the degeneration of cartilage at joints particularly on vertebral bodies?
Which of the following is a bony outgrowth associated with the degeneration of cartilage at joints particularly on vertebral bodies?
Osteophytes (bone spurs) are bony projections that form at joints. Osteophytes occur when there are changes to bone formation via aging, mechanical instability, degeneration, and disease, including arthritis (which is the most common cause of osteophyte formation). Osteophytes form naturally on the spine via degeneration of the vertebrae with aging. Osteophytes do not cause pain, but may impinge on nerves which will lead to pain, and/or numbness and tingling sensations. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells.
Enthesophytes are bony projections that form at ligament or tendon attachments.
Osteophytes (bone spurs) are bony projections that form at joints. Osteophytes occur when there are changes to bone formation via aging, mechanical instability, degeneration, and disease, including arthritis (which is the most common cause of osteophyte formation). Osteophytes form naturally on the spine via degeneration of the vertebrae with aging. Osteophytes do not cause pain, but may impinge on nerves which will lead to pain, and/or numbness and tingling sensations. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells.
Enthesophytes are bony projections that form at ligament or tendon attachments.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which bone disease is commonly seen elderly females?
Which bone disease is commonly seen elderly females?
Osteoporosis is a breakdown of bone, commonly due to a lack of calcium, which is typically lost faster in females due to a menstruation cycle, and chronic breakdown with age. Also, females have less bone density to begin with.
Osteo- (which is going to be a Latin based root word for bone) will help you eliminate the other answers, which are all inflammation of non-bony structures within the body.
Osteoporosis is a breakdown of bone, commonly due to a lack of calcium, which is typically lost faster in females due to a menstruation cycle, and chronic breakdown with age. Also, females have less bone density to begin with.
Osteo- (which is going to be a Latin based root word for bone) will help you eliminate the other answers, which are all inflammation of non-bony structures within the body.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
The fulcrum test and the patellar-pubic percussion test are tests for fractures of which bone?
The fulcrum test and the patellar-pubic percussion test are tests for fractures of which bone?
These are tests for femur fractures, specifically for fractures of the femoral neck. The fulcrum test involves having the patient sit with his/her affected leg hanging off the edge of a surface, then the examiner will place his/her forearm under the shaft of the femur. If the patient experiences pain in the femur upon applying downward force on the knee, the result is positive, and the patient has fractured the femur. The patellar-pubic percussion test involves the use of a stethoscope on the lateral aspect of the pubic symphysis of the leg being examined. The patella is tapped with the tip of a finger or a tuning fork. Normally, there will be a distinct, loud sound that is caused by each tapping; if the sound is dissipated or muffled, this indicates a femoral fracture.
These are tests for femur fractures, specifically for fractures of the femoral neck. The fulcrum test involves having the patient sit with his/her affected leg hanging off the edge of a surface, then the examiner will place his/her forearm under the shaft of the femur. If the patient experiences pain in the femur upon applying downward force on the knee, the result is positive, and the patient has fractured the femur. The patellar-pubic percussion test involves the use of a stethoscope on the lateral aspect of the pubic symphysis of the leg being examined. The patella is tapped with the tip of a finger or a tuning fork. Normally, there will be a distinct, loud sound that is caused by each tapping; if the sound is dissipated or muffled, this indicates a femoral fracture.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
A patient comes into the emergency room (ER), complaining of pain in his knee. You think the patient might have a fracture, and may need an x-ray, but you are uncertain. Which of the following findings would warrant an x-ray of the patient’s knee?
A patient comes into the emergency room (ER), complaining of pain in his knee. You think the patient might have a fracture, and may need an x-ray, but you are uncertain. Which of the following findings would warrant an x-ray of the patient’s knee?
Inability to take more than 4 steps with the injured leg is one of the criteria of the is used order x-rays for suspected fractures around the knee complex, per the Ottawa knee rules. The other criteria are as follows: isolated tenderness at the patella or tenderness at the fibular head or patient age greater than 55 or inability to flex the knee past 
.
Inability to take more than 4 steps with the injured leg is one of the criteria of the is used order x-rays for suspected fractures around the knee complex, per the Ottawa knee rules. The other criteria are as follows: isolated tenderness at the patella or tenderness at the fibular head or patient age greater than 55 or inability to flex the knee past
Compare your answer with the correct one above
The closed fist percussion sign would be useful for diagnosing which pathology?
The closed fist percussion sign would be useful for diagnosing which pathology?
Although diagnostic imaging is needed to conclusively to rule in a fracture, the closed fist percussion sign has good diagnostic value in detecting vertebral compression fractures. Given that this tests involves hitting a patient in the back, clinicians may be hesitant to use this test. In such cases, the supine sign (increased pain with lying supine) can also be used to screen for vertebral compression fractures.
Although diagnostic imaging is needed to conclusively to rule in a fracture, the closed fist percussion sign has good diagnostic value in detecting vertebral compression fractures. Given that this tests involves hitting a patient in the back, clinicians may be hesitant to use this test. In such cases, the supine sign (increased pain with lying supine) can also be used to screen for vertebral compression fractures.
Compare your answer with the correct one above
Which of the following diagnostic criteria is not used to screen for fractures?
Which of the following diagnostic criteria is not used to screen for fractures?
As their names suggest, the Ottawa knee and ankle rules, and the Amsterdam wrist rules are used to determine which patients should receive x-rays for suspected ankle, knee, and wrist fractures respectively. Well's criteria are used to screen for pulmonary embolisms (PEs) and deep vein thromboses (DVTs). It should be noted that there are distinct Well's criteria for PEs and DVTs.
As their names suggest, the Ottawa knee and ankle rules, and the Amsterdam wrist rules are used to determine which patients should receive x-rays for suspected ankle, knee, and wrist fractures respectively. Well's criteria are used to screen for pulmonary embolisms (PEs) and deep vein thromboses (DVTs). It should be noted that there are distinct Well's criteria for PEs and DVTs.
Compare your answer with the correct one above