Causes and Treatments of Gastrointestinal Conditions

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NCLEX-PN › Causes and Treatments of Gastrointestinal Conditions

Questions 1 - 10
1

The majority of hepatic infections are with which of the following type of microbe?

Viruses

Bacteria

Fungi

Prions

Explanation

The majority of liver infections are viral in nature. Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are the most frequent agents of infection, with hepatitis C being the leading cause of liver transplants. Bacterial infections in the liver most commonly take the form of an abscess. Fungal hepatitis and prion infection of the liver are not generally seen.

2

Which of the following bacterial species is responsible for the development of peptic ulcers?

Helicobacter pylori

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus faecalis

Treponema pallidum

Viridans streptococci

Explanation

Helicobacter pylori or H. pylori is the bacterial cause of peptic ulcers. Staphylococcus aureus is a bacteria that frequently causes skin infections along with other conditions such as toxic shock syndrome. Streptococcus faecalis is responsible for many urinary tract infections and contracting Viridans streptococci may result in endocarditis. Treponema pallidum bacteria cause syphilis.

3

You are the nurse for a new patient brought to the emergency department for a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. The patient is tachycardic and hypotensive, but conscious, responsive, and breathing spontaneously without any airway trouble. Which of the following is the best initial intervention?

Insert two large-bore peripheral IV's

Prepare to intubate the patient

Administer hydromorphone

Administer lorazepam

Administer warfarin

Explanation

The correct answer in this question is "Insert two large-bore peripheral IV's."

This is the correct answer because this patient is suffering from a suspected gastrointestinal bleed and based upon the report of the vital signs, he is hemodynamically unstable. In evaluating an emergency/trauma patient, the "ABC's" must be assessed (A= airway, B= breathing, C= circulation). In this patient's case, it is stated that he is responsive and breathing without any issues, indicating that his airway and breathing are both satisfactory. The next issue is his circulation. Given that he has a suspected bleed, and is tachycardic and hypotensive, it is likely that he is losing a significant amount of blood from his bleeding viscera. As such, he may need emergent, rapid fluid and/or blood product resuscitation. The best way to prepare for this immediately is to place two large bore peripheral IV lines, such that resuscitation can be provided through these lines while the rest of the workup and treatment continues. Any delay in placing these lines delays the fluid/blood resuscitation of the patient, which can be dangerous.

At this point, given that the patient has a protected airway and is breathing without issue, intubation would not be indicated. Should his airway or breathing status change, the need can be reassessed.

Administering hydromorphone, a potent opioid, may be necessary if the patient is in a significant amount of pain, but that would not be the most pressing initial concern given that he is hemodynamically unstable.

Administering warfarin, an anticoagulant, would be highly contraindicated in this patient, as he likely has an active gastrointestinal bleed and is hemodynamically unstable.

Administering lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not indicated in this hemodynamically unstable patient with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. After stabilization and continued demonstration of airway protection, if the patient is anxious, this need can be reassessed.

4

What foods must be avoided in Celiac disease?

Foods containing gluten

Foods containing dairy

Foods containing wheat

Foods containing oat

Foots containing red meat

Explanation

Celiac disease is an autoimmune condition that is triggered by ingestion of gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. A wheat-free diet is not sufficient for a patient with Celiac disease, as many other products contain elements of barley or rye and thus also contain gluten.

Oat, while often avoided by individuals with Celiac disease due to cross-contamination during processing, does not contain gluten. Whole dairy products are also generally gluten-free and considered safe for patients with Celiac disease.

5

Which of the following does the nurse not recognize as a medication regimen for treating Helicobacter Pylori infections?

Single therapy-Colestipol

Dual Therapy-Ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin Omeprazole plus clarithromycin

Triple Therapy-Metronidazole, omeprazole plus clarithromycin

Quadruple Therapy-Colloidal bismuth subnitrate, tetracycline, metronidazole plus omeprazole

Explanation

Multiple therapies are required to treat Helicobacter Pylori infections. Colestipol is a bile acid sequestrant used to lower blood cholesterol, which is not used to treat Helicobacter Pylori infections ( a bacterium that colonizes the human stomach).

6

You are a nurse at an oncology infusion center taking care of a 45-year old female with breast cancer, currently being treated with chemotherapy. While receiving her chemotherapy infusion, she complains of severe nausea. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to treat this patient's nausea assuming she has a normal QTc interval?

Ondansetron

Acetaminophen

Ketorolac

Ibuprofen

Meloxicam

Explanation

The correct answer is "ondansetron." This is the correct answer because this patient, who is actively being treated with chemotherapy and experiencing severe nausea, is most likely suffering from chemotherapy-induced nausea. The most appropriate first-line treatment for chemotherapy-induced nausea in a patient with a normal QTc interval is ondansetron (also known as Zofran). Ondansetron is a serotonin 5HT-3 receptor antagonist, likely accounting for its anti-nausea properties. A side effect is QTc interval prolongation, and as such, careful consideration as to whether or not to prescribe ondansetron should be given for patients with baseline prolonged QTc intervals.

Acetaminophen, an analgesic, would not treat nausea, nor would ibuprofen, meloxicam, or ketorolac (all NSAID medications).

7

You are the nurse taking care of an 83-year old patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). They complain that they are having heartburn symptoms at night when trying to go to sleep and in the morning when they wake up. In addition to addressing their medical therapy options, you recommend which of the following to the patient:

Eat your last meal at least 3 hours prior to going to bed, and sleep as upright as possible, with multiple pillows

Eat immediately prior to going to bed

Avoid spicy foods before going to bed, but otherwise eat a whole meal right before going to bed

Drink one cup of coffee prior to going to bed

Do not take calcium carbonate for symptomatic relief

Explanation

The correct recommendation is "Eat your last meal at least 3 hours prior to going to bed, and sleep as upright as possible, with multiple pillows." This is correct because this recommendation involves fairly simple lifestyle changes that have the potential to greatly decrease the patient's symptom burden. Heartburn symptoms can be exacerbated in patients who eat spicy foods (at any time), who drink coffee, and/or who eat meals shortly prior to going to bed (since the food can physically reflux back to the distal esophagus from the stomach prior to being digested more completely). Thus, any of those recommendations would be inappropriate. Further, in a patient who is acutely experiencing acid reflux symptoms, it is typically appropriate for them to take calcium carbonate to neutralize the acid and relieve symptoms. As such, advising the patient to not eat immediately prior to going to bed, and to remain upright (to physically minimize reflux of contents) would be the most appropriate recommendation.

8

Which of the following describes a calcium carbonate preparation?

Rapid-acting; releases carbon dioxide in the stomach, causing belching and flatulence

Slow-acting; Contains significant amounts of sodium

Rapid-acting; Is also a saline laxative

Rapid onset and liberates carbon dioxide; Increases intra-abdominal pressure and promotes flatulence

Explanation

Calcium carbonate preparation is rapid-acting, releasing carbon dioxide in the stomach, causing belching and flatulence. Calcium carbonate is an antacid which reacts quicly with HCl to form CaCL2 and carbon dioxide.

9

Carrie is caring for an 85-year-old woman in a long-term care facility. Her patient has been taking antibiotics for the past two weeks to treat a severe case of cellulitis. Carrie notices that her patient has developed a fever, has refused her last two meal trays, and is complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following samples should Carrie seek permission to obtain?

A stool sample

A blood sample

A sputum sample

A urine sample

A gastric fluid sample

Explanation

It is possible that this patient is suffering from a Clostridium difficile infection caused by bacteria. The presence of an underlying condition, increasing age, and antibiotic use are all risk factors for contracting Clostridium difficile. A stool sample is commonly used to test for the bacteria. Until the results are available, Carrie should place the patient under proper C. difficile contact precautions.

10

Which of the following GERD medications works by neutralizing stomach acid?

Magnesium hydroxide

Famotidine

Omeprazole

Pantoprazole

Ranitidine

Explanation

Magnesium hydroxide is a strong base. It works by neutralizing the acid in the stomach, forming water and magnesium chloride. All other listed medications work to prevent the stomach from over-producing acid, rather than neutralizing the existing acid in the stomach.

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